This is a pretty incidental finding so no history to give.
1) Which bit is abnormal?
2) What is it?
This is a pretty incidental finding so no history to give.
1) Which bit is abnormal?
2) What is it?
Hydatid Cyst
These also look pretty funky on plain films
It is caused by Echinococci which is caused by a tape worm common in central and south america. The organ involved usually determines the presentation.
Add to your list of “things I like to have heard of but don’t need to remember in resus at 3am…”
Here’s an image sent to me by a good friend and mentor in EM from up North.
Any ideas what’s wrong with this image?
While it may look like this person has swallowed a baby it’s not actually the case.
There is calcification of the stylo-hyoid ligament. If this is associated with neck pain and dysphagia then it rejoices in the moniker “Eagle’s Syndrome.”
As a quick anatomy reminder:
The hyoid bone is held suspended between the floor of the mouth and the laryngeal skeleton. It’s mobility comes from the attached muscles and lack of any joint to the rest of the head and neck. The ligament lies parallel to the muscle of the same name.
In Eagle’s syndrome it can be either calcification of the ligament or an elongated styloid process that causes the symptoms. Of note an elongated styloid is fairly common, Eagle’s syndrome is as rare as hen’s teeth as they say…
The proximity of the styloid to the carotid sheath (and to CNvs 9-12) explains the symptoms that are sometimes present – dysphagia and very occasionally stroke.
A few days ago I posted this:
And the answer is of course:
What’s the deal with blow-out fractures then?
Why is the inferior orbital wall affected?
What kind of problems can it cause?
Any other problems?
And now that you’ve read all that can I strongly suggest that you go and read a similar and much better post on the same topic over on LITFL.
A few days ago I posted this image:
Hopefully the small bowel obstruction is fairly obvious. The slightly more subtle part of it is shown below
Or in another view here:
Now some of you should be raising questions as to why a CT was done in the first place. You certainly don’t need a CT to make the diagnosis and go to surgery in all cases.
This lady had about a 12 hr history of belly pain with no vomiting or nausea. She was continuing to pass flatus and even her appetite was maintained! She was in significant pain and had some mild distension in the tummy.
Her X-ray was this:
There was a firm palpable mass about 2 cm across that was tender but felt more like an inflamed node than a hernia but when you hear hooves…
The mass was above the inguinal ligament and just lateral to the pubic tubercle making me think if it was a hernia it was an inguinal.
Surgeons weren’t particularly impressed to do anything that evening so she was admitted and my provisional diagnosis was incarcerated hernia.
I confess to being surprised when the CT came back next day with a femoral not an inguinal hernia.
So a brief review is in order.
Inguinal hernias:
These are differentiated surgically as to whether they arise medial or lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels (branches off the femorals that run superiorly in the ant abdo wall)
Femoral hernias:
This picture should hopefully help. And if you scroll back up and look at the coronal CT image you’ll see the hernia just medial to the vessels and under the ligament.
But of course patients don’t read the books. Who could blame them…
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